PRMIA 8010 Exam : Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Exam

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PRMIA 8010 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

Question 1

For a FX forward contract, what would be the worst time for a counterparty to default (in terms of the maximum likely credit exposure)

A. At maturity
B. Indeterminate from the given information
C. Roughlythree-quarters of the way towards maturity
D. Right after inception

Question 2

For a corporate issuer, which of the following can be used to calculate market implied default probabilities?
I. CDS spreads
II. Bond prices
III. Credit rating issued by S&P
IV. Altman's scoring model

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. III and IV
D. II and III

Question 3

Which of the following is not a risk faced by a bank from holding a portfolio of residential mortgages?

A. The risk that the homeowners will pay the mortgage off before they are due
B. The risk that CDSspreads on the bank's debt will rise making funding more expensive
C. The risk that mortgage interest rates will rise in the future
D. The risk that the homeowners will not be able to pay their mortgage when they are due

Question 4

Which of the following need to be assumed to convert a transition probability matrix for a given time period to the transition probability matrix for another length of time:
I. Time invariance
II. Markov property
III. Normal distribution
IV. Zero skewness

A. I, II and IV
B. I and II
C. III and IV
D. II and III

Question 5

The principle underlying the contingent claims approach to measuring credit risk equates the cost of eliminating credit risk for a firm to be equal to:

A. the cost of a call on thefirm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt
B. the probability of the firm's assets falling below the critical value for default
C. the market valuationof the firm's equity less the value of its liabilities
D. the value of a put on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt

Solutions: