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Cisco Certified 350-201 Dumps Questions Valid 350-201 Materials [Q19-Q37]

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Cisco Certified 350-201  Dumps Questions Valid 350-201 Materials

Current 350-201 Exam Dumps [2023] Complete Cisco Exam Smoothly


Cisco 350-201 Exam Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Fundamentals20%- Interpret the components within a playbook
- Determine the tools needed based on a playbook scenario
- Apply the playbook for a common scenario (for example, unauthorized elevation of privilege, DoS and DDoS, website defacement)
- Infer the industry for various compliance standards (for example, PCI, FISMA, FedRAMP, SOC, SOX, PCI, GDPR, Data Privacy, and ISO 27101)
- Describe the concepts and limitations of cyber risk insurance
- Analyze elements of a risk analysis (combination asset, vulnerability, and threat)
- Apply the incident response workflow
- Describe characteristics and areas of improvement using common incident response metrics
- Describe types of cloud environments (for example, IaaS platform)
- Compare security operations considerations of cloud platforms (for example, IaaS, PaaS)
Techniques30%- Recommend data analytic techniques to meet specific needs or answer specific questions
- Describe the use of hardening machine images for deployment
- Describe the process of evaluating the security posture of an asset
- Evaluate the security controls of an environment, diagnose gaps, and recommend improvement
- Determine resources for industry standards and recommendations for hardening of systems
- Determine patching recommendations, given a scenario
- Recommend services to disable, given a scenario
- Apply segmentation to a network
- Utilize network controls for network hardening
- Determine SecDevOps recommendations (implications)
- Describe use and concepts related to using a Threat Intelligence Platform (TIP) to automate intelligence
- Apply threat intelligence using tools
- Apply the concepts of data loss, data leakage, data in motion, data in use, and data at rest based on common standards
- Describe the different mechanisms to detect and enforce data loss prevention techniques
  • host-based
  • network-based
  • application-based
  • cloud-based

- Recommend tuning or adapting devices and software across rules, filters, and policies
- Describe the concepts of security data management
- Describe use and concepts of tools for security data analytics
- Recommend workflow from the described issue through escalation and the automation needed for resolution
- Apply dashboard data to communicate with technical, leadership, or executive stakeholders
- Analyze anomalous user and entity behavior (UEBA)
- Determine the next action based on user behavior alerts
- Describe tools and their limitations for network analysis (for example, packet capture tools, traffic analysis tools, network log analysis tools)
- Evaluate artifacts and streams in a packet capture file
- Troubleshoot existing detection rules
- Determine the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) from an attack

Processes30%- Prioritize components in a threat model
- Determine the steps to investigate the common types of cases
- Apply the concepts and sequence of steps in the malware analysis process:
  • Extract and identify samples for analysis (for example, from packet capture or packet analysis tools)
  • Perform reverse engineering
  • Perform dynamic malware analysis using a sandbox environment
  • Identify the need for additional static malware analysis
  • Perform static malware analysis
  • Summarize and share results

- Interpret the sequence of events during an attack based on analysis of traffic patterns
- Determine the steps to investigate potential endpoint intrusion across a variety of platform types (for example, desktop, laptop, IoT, mobile devices)
- Determine known Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) and Indicators of Attack (IOAs), given a scenario
- Determine IOCs in a sandbox environment (includes generating complex indicators)
- Determine the steps to investigate potential data loss from a variety of vectors of modality (for example, cloud, endpoint, server, databases, application), given a scenario
- Recommend the general mitigation steps to address vulnerability issues
- Recommend the next steps for vulnerability triage and risk analysis using industry scoring systems (for example, CVSS) and other techniques

Automation20%- Compare concepts, platforms, and mechanisms of orchestration and automation
- Interpret basic scripts (for example, Python)
- Modify a provided script to automate a security operations task
- Recognize common data formats (for example, JSON, HTML, CSV, XML)
- Determine opportunities for automation and orchestration
- Determine the constraints when consuming APIs (for example, rate limited, timeouts, and payload)
- Explain the common HTTP response codes associated with REST APIs
- Evaluate the parts of an HTTP response (response code, headers, body)
- Interpret API authentication mechanisms: basic, custom token, and API keys
- Utilize Bash commands (file management, directory navigation, and environmental variables)
- Describe components of a CI/CD pipeline
- Apply the principles of DevOps practices
- Describe the principles of Infrastructure as Code

 

NEW QUESTION 19
An engineer notices that every Sunday night, there is a two-hour period with a large load of network activity. Upon further investigation, the engineer finds that the activity is from locations around the globe outside the organization's service are a. What are the next steps the engineer must take?

  • A. Treat it as a false positive, and accept the SIEM issue as valid to avoid alerts from triggering on weekends.
  • B. Assign the issue to the incident handling provider because no suspicious activity has been observed during business hours.
  • C. Define the access points using StealthWatch or SIEM logs, understand services being offered during the hours in Question:, and cross-correlate other source events.
  • D. Review the SIEM and FirePower logs, block all traffic, and document the results of calling the call center.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 20
A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue?

  • A. TCP small services
  • B. port UDP 161 and 162
  • C. UDP small services
  • D. SNMPv2

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

How are tokens authenticated when the REST API on a device is accessed from a REST API client?

  • A. The token is obtained before providing a password. The REST client provides access to a resource using the access token. The REST API encrypts the access token and gives access to the resource.
  • B. The token is obtained by providing a password. The REST client requests access to a resource using the access token. The REST API validates the access token and gives access to the resource.
  • C. The token is obtained before providing a password. The REST API provides resource access, refreshes tokens, and returns them to the REST client. The REST client requests access to a resource using the access token.
  • D. The token is obtained by providing a password. The REST API requests access to a resource using the access token, validates the access token, and gives access to the resource.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

  • A. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API
  • B. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API
  • C. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make
  • D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 24
A threat actor has crafted and sent a spear-phishing email with what appears to be a trustworthy link to the site of a conference that an employee recently attended. The employee clicked the link and was redirected to a malicious site through which the employee downloaded a PDF attachment infected with ransomware. The employee opened the attachment, which exploited vulnerabilities on the desktop. The ransomware is now installed and is calling back to its command and control server. Which security solution is needed at this stage to mitigate the attack?

  • A. email security solution
  • B. web security solution
  • C. network security solution
  • D. endpoint security solution

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 25
A cloud engineer needs a solution to deploy applications on a cloud without being able to manage and control the server OS. Which type of cloud environment should be used?

  • A. DaaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. IaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 26

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

  • A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the "ransomware" because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
  • B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the "ransomware" because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
  • C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the "ransomware" because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
  • D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the "ransomware" because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 27
Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 28

Refer to the exhibit. An employee is a victim of a social engineering phone call and installs remote access software to allow an "MS Support" technician to check his machine for malware. The employee becomes suspicious after the remote technician requests payment in the form of gift cards. The employee has copies of multiple, unencrypted database files, over 400 MB each, on his system and is worried that the scammer copied the files off but has no proof of it. The remote technician was connected sometime between 2:00 pm and 3:00 pm over https. What should be determined regarding data loss between the employee's laptop and the remote technician's system?

  • A. No database files were disclosed
  • B. The database files integrity was violated
  • C. The database files were intentionally corrupted, and encryption is possible
  • D. The database files were disclosed

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco Rapid Threat Containment using Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) and ISE detects the threat of malware-infected 802.1x authenticated endpoints and places that endpoint into a Quarantine VLAN using Adaptive Network Control policy. Which telemetry feeds were correlated with SMC to identify the malware?

  • A. event data and syslog data
  • B. SNMP and syslog data
  • C. NetFlow and SNMP
  • D. NetFlow and event data

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 30
A Mac laptop user notices that several files have disappeared from their laptop documents folder. While looking for the files, the user notices that the browser history was recently cleared. The user raises a case, and an analyst reviews the network usage and discovers that it is abnormally high. Which step should be taken to continue the investigation?

  • A. Run the sh command
  • B. Run the who command
  • C. Run the sudo sysdiagnose command
  • D. Run the w command

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is investigating a case with suspicious usernames within the active directory. After the engineer investigates and cross-correlates events from other sources, it appears that the 2 users are privileged, and their creation date matches suspicious network traffic that was initiated from the internal network 2 days prior. Which type of compromise is occurring?

  • A. compromised insider
  • B. compromised root access
  • C. compromised database tables
  • D. compromised network

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 32
A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

  • A. incident response playbooks
  • B. asset vulnerability assessment
  • C. malware analysis report
  • D. report of staff members with asset relations
  • E. key assets and executives

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://cloudogre.com/risk-assessment/

 

NEW QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is reverse engineering a suspicious file by examining its resources. What does this file indicate?

  • A. an archived malware
  • B. a DOS MZ executable format
  • C. a MS-DOS executable archive
  • D. a Windows executable file

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 34
An analyst wants to upload an infected file containing sensitive information to a hybrid-analysis sandbox. According to the NIST.SP 800-150 guide to cyber threat information sharing, what is the analyst required to do before uploading the file to safeguard privacy?

  • A. Ensure the online sandbox is GDPR compliant.
  • B. Remove all personally identifiable information.
  • C. Verify hash integrity.
  • D. Lock the file to prevent unauthorized access.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 35
Drag and drop the type of attacks from the left onto the cyber kill chain stages at which the attacks are seen on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 36
A security expert is investigating a breach that resulted in a $32 million loss from customer accounts. Hackers were able to steal API keys and two-factor codes due to a vulnerability that was introduced in a new code a few weeks before the attack. Which step was missed that would have prevented this breach?

  • A. implementation of an endpoint protection system
  • B. use of the Nmap tool to identify the vulnerability when the new code was deployed
  • C. use of SecDevOps to detect the vulnerability during development
  • D. implementation of a firewall and intrusion detection system

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 37
......


Prior Knowledge

Even though the vendor doesn’t have any mandatory prerequisites, following some recommendations will help the candidate get the passing score from the first attempt. According to the official blueprint, students should have a solid understanding of the topics included in the CyberOps Associate-level training class. Also, they should become familiar with Linux or UNIX shells and know how to work with shell commands. Beyond that, the examinees will find it easier to go through the requirements of the Cisco 350-201 exam if they have a good understanding of scripting and know how to work with Python, PHP, or JavaScript features. Finally, the candidates should have previously gone over the topics included in the CCNA certification training course.


Exam Details

Cisco 350-201 gives a solid base needed for the skills that you will get for the concentration test. This way, you will be able to gain all the required knowledge and earn the certification to prove your expertise for the real-life events. It measures your level of knowledge of various cybersecurity processes and techniques.

The exam contains about 100-110 questions and an interested candidate should answer them all within 2 hours. Please note that you can face with different types of questions, including fill-in-the-blank, drag and drop, testlet, as well as multiple choice with single and multiple answers. To become eligible for the concentration test, you have to score about 825 points. If talking about the registration process for this Cisco exam, it is important to mention that an applicant needs to pay $400. Besides that, you should have an account on the Pearson VUE platform to be able to schedule the test.

 

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