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NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the correct sequence of steps involved in scheduling a threat intelligence program?
1. Review the project charter
2. Identify all deliverables
3. Identify the sequence of activities
4. Identify task dependencies
5. Develop the final schedule
6. Estimate duration of each activity
7. Identify and estimate resources for all activities
8. Define all activities
9. Build a work breakdown structure (WBS)
- A. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6-->9-->8-->7
- B. 3-->4-->5-->2-->1-->9-->8-->7-->6
- C. 1-->9-->2-->8-->3-->7-->4-->6-->5
- D. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6-->7-->8-->9
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct sequence for scheduling a threat intelligence program involves starting with the foundational steps of defining the project scope and objectives, followed by detailed planning and scheduling of tasks. The sequence starts with reviewing the project charter (1) to understand the project's scope, objectives, and constraints. Next, building a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) (9) helps in organizing the team's work into manageable sections. Identifying all deliverables (2) clarifies the project's outcomes. Defining all activities (8) involves listing the tasks required to produce the deliverables. Identifying the sequence of activities (3) and estimating resources (7) and task dependencies (4) sets the groundwork for scheduling. Estimating the duration of each activity (6) is critical before developing the final schedule (5), which combines all these elements into a comprehensive plan. This approach ensures a structured and methodical progression from project initiation to execution.References:
* "A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide)," Project Management Institute
* "Cyber Intelligence-Driven Risk," by Intel471
NEW QUESTION # 24
ABC is a well-established cyber-security company in the United States. The organization implemented the automation of tasks such as data enrichment and indicator aggregation. They also joined various communities to increase their knowledge about the emerging threats. However, the security teams can only detect and prevent identified threats in a reactive approach.
Based on threat intelligence maturity model, identify the level of ABC to know the stage at which the organization stands with its security and vulnerabilities.
- A. Level 2: increasing CTI capabilities
- B. Level 3: CTI program in place
- C. Level 1: preparing for CTI
- D. Level 0: vague where to start
Answer: B
Explanation:
ABC cyber-security company, which has implemented automation for tasks such as data enrichment and indicator aggregation and has joined various communities to increase knowledge about emerging threats, is demonstrating characteristics of a Level 3 maturity in the threat intelligence maturity model. At this level, organizations have a formal Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) program in place, with processes and tools implemented to collect, analyze, and integrate threat intelligence into their security operations. Although they may still be reactive in detecting and preventing threats, the existence of structured CTI capabilities indicates a more developed stage of threat intelligence maturity.References:
* "Building a Threat Intelligence Program," by Recorded Future
* "The Threat Intelligence Handbook," by Chris Pace, Cybersecurity Evangelist at Recorded Future
NEW QUESTION # 25
Ren is assigned to handle a security incident of an organization. He is tasked with forensics investigation to find the evidence needed by the management. Which of the following steps falls under the investigation phase of the computer forensics investigation process?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Secure the evidence
- C. Setup a computer forensics lab
- D. Evidence assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Evidence assessment is a critical step in the investigation phase of the computer forensics process. This step involves evaluating the evidence collected to determine its relevance and significance to the case at hand. It includes analyzing the secured data to identify what information can be used as evidence, its integrity, and how it can be related to the security incident. This phase is pivotal as it helps in building a coherent understanding of the incident and in establishing facts that can be presented in management reports or legal proceedings.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) by EC-Council includes a comprehensive discussion on the computer forensics investigation process, detailing steps from securing evidence to analyzing and assessing it within the context of an investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 26
An incident handler is analyzing email headers to find out suspicious emails.
Which of the following tools he/she must use in order to accomplish the task?
- A. Gophish
- B. Barracuda Email Security Gateway
- C. SPAMfighter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Barracuda Email Security Gateway is designed to manage and filter inbound and outbound email traffic to protect organizations from email-borne threats and data leaks. As an incident handler analyzing email headers to find out suspicious emails, using a tool like the Barracuda Email Security Gateway would be appropriate. This tool can help identify and block spam, phishing, malware, and other malicious email threats, making it easier to focus on analyzing potentially harmful emails more closely.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A threat analyst wants to incorporate a requirement in the threat knowledge repository that provides an ability to modify or delete past or irrelevant threat data.
Which of the following requirement must he include in the threat knowledge repository to fulfil his needs?
- A. Searchable functionality
- B. Data management
- C. Protection ranking
- D. Evaluating performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incorporating a data management requirement in the threat knowledge repository is essential to provide the ability to modify or delete past or irrelevant threat data. Effective data management practices ensure that the repository remains accurate, relevant, and up-to-date by allowing for the adjustment and curation of stored information. This includes removing outdated intelligence, correcting inaccuracies, and updating information as new insights become available. A well-managed repository supports the ongoing relevance and utility of the threat intelligence, aiding in informed decision-making and threat mitigation strategies.References:
* "Building and Maintaining a Threat Intelligence Library," by Recorded Future
* "Best Practices for Creating a Threat Intelligence Policy, and How to Use It," by SANS Institute
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following types of threat attribution deals with the identification of the specific person, society, or a country sponsoring a well-planned and executed intrusion or attack over its target?
- A. True attribution
- B. Campaign attribution
- C. Intrusion-set attribution
- D. Nation-state attribution
Answer: A
Explanation:
True attribution in the context of cyber threats involves identifying the actual individual, group, or nation- state behind an attack or intrusion. This type of attribution goes beyond associating an attack with certain tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) or a known group and aims to pinpoint the real-world entity responsible. True attribution ischallenging due to the anonymity of the internet and the use of obfuscation techniques by attackers, but it is crucial for understanding the motive behind an attack and for forming appropriate responses at diplomatic, law enforcement, or cybersecurity levels.References:
* "Attribution of Cyber Attacks: A Framework for an Evidence-Based Analysis" by Jason Healey
* "The Challenges of Attribution in Cyberspace" in the Journal of Cyber Policy
NEW QUESTION # 29
In a team of threat analysts, two individuals were competing over projecting their own hypotheses on a given malware. However, to find logical proofs to confirm their hypotheses, the threat intelligence manager used a de-biasing strategy that involves learning strategic decision making in the circumstances comprising multistep interactions with numerous representatives, either having or without any perfect relevant information.
Which of the following de-biasing strategies the threat intelligence manager used to confirm their hypotheses?
- A. Decision theory
- B. Machine learning
- C. Game theory
- D. Cognitive psychology
Answer: C
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical framework designed for understanding strategic situations where individuals' or groups' outcomes depend on their choices and the choices of others. In the context of threat intelligence analysis, game theory can be used as a de-biasing strategy to help understand and predict the actions of adversaries and defenders. By considering the various strategies and potential outcomes in a 'game' where each player's payoff is affected by the actions of others, analysts can overcome their biases and evaluate hypotheses more objectively. This approach is particularly useful in scenarios involving multiple actors with different goals and incomplete information.References:
* "Game Theory and Its Applications in Cybersecurity" in the International Journal of Computer Science and Information Security
* "Applying Game Theory to Cybersecurity" by the SANS Institute
NEW QUESTION # 30
Bob, an incident responder at CyberTech Solutions, is investigating a cybercrime attack occurred in the client company. He acquired the evidence data, preserved it, and started performing analysis on acquired evidentiary data to identify the source of the crime and the culprit behind the incident.
Identify the forensic investigation phase in which Bob is currently in.
- A. Pre-investigation phase
- B. Investigation phas
- C. Vulnerability assessment phase
- D. Post-investigation phase
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bob is in the Investigation phase of the forensic investigation process. This phase involves the detailed examination and analysis of the collected evidence to identify the source of the crime and the perpetrator behind the incident. It is a crucial step that follows the acquisition and preservation of evidence, where the incident responder applies various techniques and methodologies to analyze the evidentiary data. This analysis aims to uncover how the cybercrime was committed, trace the activities of the culprit, and gather actionable intelligence to support legal actions and prevent future incidents.References:The CREST materials discuss the stages of a forensic investigation, emphasizing the investigation phase as the point at which the incident responder analyzes evidence to draw conclusions about the incident's specifics.
NEW QUESTION # 31
James is working as an incident responder at CyberSol Inc. The management instructed James to investigate a cybersecurity incident that recently happened in the company. As a part of the investigation process, James started collecting volatile information from a system running on Windows operating system.
Which of the following commands helps James in determining all the executable files for running processes?
- A. top
- B. cate A &. time ,/t
- C. netstat -ab
- D. doskey/history
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thenetstat -abcommand is useful in Windows operating systems for displaying all connections and listening ports, along with the executable involved in creating each connection or listening port. This can be particularly valuable for an incident responder like James when attempting to determine which processes are running on a system and how they are communicating over the network. This information can help identify malicious processes, unauthorized connections, or other signs of compromise on the system. Whilenetstat -ab does not exclusively list executable files for running processes, it ties processes to network activity, which is a critical part of collecting volatile information during a cybersecurity incident investigation.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) course by EC-Council covers various commands and tools that can be used to collect volatile data from systems as part of incident response activities, highlighting the importance of understanding network connections and the processes responsible for them.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Sarah is a security operations center (SOC) analyst working at JW Williams and Sons organization based in Chicago. As a part of security operations, she contacts information providers (sharing partners) for gathering information such as collections of validated and prioritized threat indicators along with a detailed technical analysis of malware samples, botnets, DDoS attack methods, and various other malicious tools. She further used the collected information at the tactical and operational levels.
Sarah obtained the required information from which of the following types of sharing partner?
- A. Providers of threat data feeds
- B. Providers of comprehensive cyber-threat intelligence
- C. Providers of threat indicators
- D. Providers of threat actors
Answer: B
Explanation:
The information Sarah is gathering, which includes collections of validated and prioritized threat indicators along with detailed technical analysis of malware samples, botnets, DDoS methods, and other malicious tools, indicates that she is obtaining this intelligence from providers of comprehensive cyber-threat intelligence.
These providers offer a holistic view of the threat landscape, combining tactical and operational threat data with in-depth analysis and context, enabling security teams to make informed decisions and strategically enhance their defenses.References:
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence Providers: How to Choose the Right One for Your Organization," by CrowdStrike
* "The Role of Comprehensive Cyber Threat Intelligence in Effective Cybersecurity Strategies," by FireEye
NEW QUESTION # 33
During the process of threat intelligence analysis, John, a threat analyst, successfully extracted an indication of adversary's information, such as Modus operandi, tools, communication channels, and forensics evasion strategies used by adversaries.
Identify the type of threat intelligence analysis is performed by John.
- A. Technical threat intelligence analysis
- B. Operational threat intelligence analysis
- C. Strategic threat intelligence analysis
- D. Tactical threat intelligence analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tactical threat intelligence analysis focuses on the immediate, technical indicators of threats, such as the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by adversaries, their communication channels, the tools and software they utilize, and their strategies for evading forensic analysis. This type of analysis is crucial for operational defenses and is used by security teams to adjust their defenses against current threats. Since John successfully extracted information related to the adversaries' modus operandi, tools, communication channels, and evasion strategies, he is performing tactical threat intelligence analysis. This differs from strategic and operational threat intelligence, which focus on broader trends and specific operations, respectively, and from technical threat intelligence, which deals with technical indicators like malware signatures and IPs.References:
* "Tactical Cyber Intelligence," by Cyber Threat Intelligence Network, Inc.
* "Intelligence-Driven Incident Response: Outwitting the Adversary," by Scott J. Roberts and Rebekah Brown
NEW QUESTION # 34
Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate. What type of analysis are you performing?
- A. Static
- B. Live
- C. Dynamic
- D. Real-time
Answer: A
Explanation:
When Investigator Ian gives you a drive image to investigate, the type of analysis you are performing is static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the contents of a drive, file, or binary without executing the system or the application. It's about analyzing the data at rest. This type of analysis is crucial for forensics investigations because it allows for the examination of files, directories, and system information without altering any state or data, thereby preserving the integrity of the evidence. Static analysis is contrasted with dynamic analysis, which involves analyzing a system in operation (real-time or live) or executing the application to observe its behavior.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides highlight the importance of static analysis in digital forensics, detailing methods for examining disk images, files, and other digital artifacts to gather evidence without compromising its integrity.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Bob, a threat analyst, works in an organization named TechTop. He was asked to collect intelligence to fulfil the needs and requirements of the Red Tam present within the organization.
Which of the following are the needs of a RedTeam?
- A. Intelligence related to increased attacks targeting a particular software or operating system vulnerability
- B. Intelligence extracted latest attacks analysis on similar organizations, which includes details about latest threats and TTPs
- C. Intelligence that reveals risks related to various strategic business decisions
- D. Intelligence on latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Red Teams are tasked with emulating potential adversaries to test and improve the security posture of an organization. They require intelligence on the latest vulnerabilities, threat actors, and their TTPs to simulate realistic attack scenarios and identify potential weaknesses in the organization's defenses. This information helps Red Teams in crafting their attack strategies to be as realistic and relevant as possible, thereby providing valuable insights into how actual attackers might exploit the organization's systems. This need contrasts with the requirements of other teams or roles within an organization, such as strategic decision-makers, who might be more interested in intelligence relatedto strategic risks or Blue Teams, which focus on defending against and responding to attacks.References:
* Red Team Field Manual (RTFM)
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework for understanding threat actor TTPs
NEW QUESTION # 36
Eric works as a system administrator at ABC organization and previously granted several users with access privileges to the organizations systems with unlimited permissions. These privileged users could prospectively misuse their rights unintentionally, maliciously, or could be deceived by attackers that could trick them to perform malicious activities. Which of the following guidelines would help incident handlers eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?
- A. Do not use encryption methods to prevent, administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information
- B. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
- C. Do not enable default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
- D. Do not control the access to administrator ano privileged users
Answer: C
Explanation:
Not enabling default administrative accounts is crucial to ensuring accountability and minimizing the risk of insider attacks by privileged users. By disabling or renaming default accounts, organizations can better track the actions performed by individual administrators, reducing the risk of unauthorized or malicious activities going unnoticed. This practice is part of a broader approach to privilege management that includes limiting permissions to the minimum necessary and monitoring the use of administrative privileges.
References:The CREST CPTIA program emphasizes the importance of managing privileged access and ensuring accountability among users with elevated permissions to protect against insider threats and misuse of administrative rights.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Eric works as a system administrator in ABC organization. He granted privileged users with unlimited permissions to access the systems. These privileged users can misuse their rights unintentionally or maliciously or attackers can trick them to perform malicious activities.
Which of the following guidelines helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?
- A. Do not control the access to administrators and privileged users
- B. Do not use encryption methods to prevent administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information
- C. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
- D. Do not enable the default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
Answer: D
Explanation:
The guideline that helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users is to ensure accountability by not enabling default administrative accounts. Instead, organizations should require administrators and privileged users to use individual accounts that can be audited and traced back to specific actions and users. This practice enhances security by ensuring that all actions taken on the system can be attributed to individual users, reducing the risk of misuse of privileges and making it easier to identify the source of malicious activities or policy violations. The other options listed either present insecure practices or misunderstandings of security protocols that would not help in eradicating insider attacks.References:The CREST materials discuss strategies for managing and mitigating the risks associated with privileged users, including the importance of accountability and the controlled use of administrative privileges to prevent insider threats.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following risk management processes identifies the risks, estimates the impact, and determines sources to recommend proper mitigation measures?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Risk mitigation
- C. Risk assumption
- D. Risk avoidance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk assessment is the risk management process that involves identifying risks, estimating their impact on the organization, and determining the sources of those risks to recommend appropriate mitigation measures. The goal of a risk assessment is to understand the nature of potential threats, vulnerabilities, and the consequences of those risks materializing, allowing an organization to make informed decisions about how to address them effectively. Risk assumption involves accepting the potential impact of a risk, risk mitigation focuses on reducing the likelihood or impact of risks, and risk avoidance involves taking actions to avoid the risk entirely.
References:The CREST CPTIA course materials include discussions on risk management processes, outlining the importance of risk assessment in identifying and preparing for potential security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 39
An attack on a network is BEST blocked using which of the following?
- A. Web proxy
- B. HIPS
- C. IPS device inline
- D. Load balancer
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) device placed inline is best suited to block attacks on a network actively. Being inline allows the IPS to analyze and take action on the traffic as it passes through the device, effectively preventing malicious traffic from reaching its target. The IPS can detect and block a wide range of attacks in real-time by using various detection methods, such as signature-based detection, anomaly detection, and policy-based detection. Unlike Host-based Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS), web proxies, or load balancers, an inline IPS is specifically designed to inspect and act on incoming and outgoing network traffic to prevent attacks before they reach network devices or applications.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials discuss network security controls and emphasize the role of intrusion prevention systems in protecting networks against threats.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Clark, a professional hacker, exploited the web application of a target organization by tampering the form and parameter values. He successfully exploited the web application and gained access to the information assets of the organization.
Identify the vulnerability in the web application exploited by the attacker.
- A. Broken access control
- B. Sensitive data exposure
- C. SQL injection
- D. Security misconfiguration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The vulnerability exploited by Clark through tampering with form and parameter values to gain unauthorized access to information assets is indicative of Broken Access Control. Broken Access Control vulnerabilities occur when a web application does not properly enforce restrictions on what authenticated users are allowed to do. Attackers can exploit these vulnerabilities to access unauthorized functionality or data, such as accessing other users' accounts, viewing sensitive files, and modifying other users' data.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following characteristics of APT refers to numerous attempts done by the attacker to gain entry to the target's network?
- A. Timeliness
- B. Attack origination points
- C. Multiphased
- D. Risk tolerance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) are characterized by their 'Multiphased' nature, referring to the various stages or phases the attacker undertakes to breach a network, remain undetected, and achieve their objectives.
This characteristic includes numerous attempts to gain entry to the target's network, often starting with reconnaissance, followed by initial compromise, and progressing through stages such as establishment of a backdoor, expansion, data exfiltration, and maintaining persistence. This multiphased approach allows attackers to adapt and pursue their objectives despite potential disruptions or initial failures in their campaign.
References:
* "Understanding Advanced Persistent Threats and Complex Malware," by FireEye
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework, detailing the multiphased nature of adversary tactics and techniques
NEW QUESTION # 42
Moses, a threat intelligence analyst at InfoTec Inc., wants to find crucial information about the potential threats the organization is facing by using advanced Google searchoperators. He wants to identify whether any fake websites are hosted at the similar to the organization's URL.
Which of the following Google search queries should Moses use?
- A. info: www.infothech.org
- B. link: www.infothech.org
- C. cache: www.infothech.org
- D. related: www.infothech.org
Answer: D
Explanation:
The "related:" Google search operator is used to find websites that are similar or related to a specified URL.
In the context provided, Moses wants to identify fake websites that may be posing as or are similar to his organization's official site. By using the "related:" operator followed by his organization's URL, Google will return a list of websites that Google considers to be similar to the specified site. This can help Moses identify potential impersonating websites that could be used for phishing or other malicious activities. The "info:",
"link:", and "cache:" operators serve different purposes; "info:" provides information about the specified webpage, "link:" used to be used to find pages linking to a specific URL (but is now deprecated), and "cache:" shows the cached version of the specified webpage.References:
* Google Search Operators Guide by Moz
* Google Advanced Search Help Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following tools helps incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, web artifacts, etc., during an incident response process?
- A. netstat
- B. Autopsy
- C. nblslal
- D. Process Explorer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Autopsy is a digital forensics platform and graphical interface to The Sleuth Kit and other digital forensics tools. It is used by law enforcement, military, and corporate examiners to investigate what happened on a computer. Autopsy enables incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, and analyze web artifacts, among other functionalities. This tool is particularly useful during the incident response process for conducting in-depth investigations into the nature of a security incident, identifying the methods used by attackers, and recovering lost or compromised data.
References:The EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program covers digital forensic tools and techniques, highlighting the capabilities of Autopsy for supporting comprehensive incident investigations and response activities.
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NEW QUESTION # 44
An organization suffered many major attacks and lost critical information, such as employee records, and financial information. Therefore, the management decides to hire a threat analyst to extract the strategic threat intelligence that provides high-level information regarding current cyber-security posture, threats, details on the financial impact of various cyber-activities, and so on.
Which of the following sources will help the analyst to collect the required intelligence?
- A. Human, social media, chat rooms
- B. Campaign reports, malware, incident reports, attack group reports, human intelligence
- C. OSINT, CTI vendors, ISAO/ISACs
- D. Active campaigns, attacks on other organizations, data feeds from external third parties
Answer: C
Explanation:
For gathering strategic threat intelligence that provides a high-level overview of the current cybersecurity posture, potential financial impacts of cyber activities, and overarching threats, sources such as Open Source Intelligence (OSINT), Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) vendors, and Information Sharing and Analysis Organizations (ISAOs)/Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are invaluable. OSINT involves collecting data from publicly available sources, CTI vendors specialize in providing detailed threat intelligence services, and ISAOs/ISACs facilitate the sharing of threat data within specific industries or communities. These sources can provide broad insights into threat landscapes, helping organizations understand how to align their cybersecurity strategies with current trends and threats.References:
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence: Sources and Methods," by Max Kilger, Ph.D., SANS Institute Reading Room
* "Open Source Intelligence (OSINT): An Introduction to the Basic Concepts and the Potential Benefits for Information Security," by Kevin Cardwell, IEEE Xplore
NEW QUESTION # 45
In which of the following attacks does the attacker exploit vulnerabilities in a computer application before the software developer can release a patch for them?
- A. Active online attack
- B. Zero-day attack
- C. Distributed network attack
- D. Advanced persistent attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero-day attack exploits vulnerabilities in software or hardware that are unknown to the vendor or for which a patch has not yet been released. These attacks are particularly dangerous because they take advantage of the window of time between the vulnerability's discovery and the availability of a fix, leaving systems exposed to potential exploitation. Zero-day attacks require a proactive and comprehensive approach to security, including the use of advanced threat detection systems and threat intelligence to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can be exploited.References:
* "Understanding Zero-Day Exploits," by MITRE
* "Zero-Day Threats: What They Are and How to Protect Against Them," by Symantec
NEW QUESTION # 46
Bran is an incident handler who is assessing the network of the organization. In the process, he wants to detect ping sweep attempts on the network using Wireshark tool.
Which of the following Wireshark filter he must use to accomplish this task?
- A. icmp.redir_gw
- B. icmp.ident
- C. icmp.type==8
- D. icmp.seq
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Wireshark, the filtericmp.type==8is used to detect ping sweep attempts. ICMP type 8 messages are echo requests, which are used in ping operations to check the availability of a network device. A ping sweep involves sending ICMP echo requests to multiple addresses to discover active devices on a network. By filtering for ICMP type 8 messages in Wireshark, Bran can identify these echo requests, helping to pinpoint ping sweep activities on the network.
References:Wireshark, as a network protocol analyzer, is frequently discussed in the CREST CPTIA program, with particular emphasis on its utility in detecting network reconnaissance activities like ping sweeps through specific filter usage.
NEW QUESTION # 47
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