SK0-005 Dumps (2025) Prepare Your Exam With 470 Questions
New SK0-005 Dumps - Real CompTIA Exam Questions
CompTIA SK0-005 exam is a challenging but rewarding certification to obtain. To prepare for the exam, candidates can take advantage of a variety of study materials, including books, online courses, and practice exams. Additionally, hands-on experience with server hardware and software is essential to succeed in the exam. By obtaining the CompTIA Server+ certification, candidates can distinguish themselves from their peers and position themselves for career advancement.
NEW QUESTION # 182
An administrator gave Ann modify permissions to a shared folder called DATA, which is located on the company server. Other users need read access to the files in this folder. The current configuration is as follows:
The administrator has determined Ann cannot write anything to the DATA folder using the network. Which of the following would be the best practice to set up Ann's permissions correctly, exposing only the minimum rights required?
- A. Option A
- B. Option C
- C. Option B
- D. Option D
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 183
A company uses a hot-site, disaster-recovery model. Which of the following types of data replication is required?
- A. Incremental
- B. Application consistent
- C. Asynchronous
- D. Constant
Answer: D
Explanation:
The type of data replication that is required for a hot-site disaster recovery model is constant. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has fully operational IT infrastructure and equipment that can take over the primary site's functions immediately in case of a disaster or disruption. A hot site requires constant data replication between the primary site and the hot site to ensure that the data is up-to-date and consistent. Constant data replication means that any changes made to the data at the primary site are immediately copied to the hot site without any delay or lag.
NEW QUESTION # 184
An administrator is troubleshooting performance issues on a server that was recently upgraded. The administrator met with users/stakeholders and documented recent changes in an effort to determine whether the server is better or worse since the changes. Which of the following would BEST help answer the server performance question9
- A. A hardware compatibility list
- B. An application service-level agreement
- C. Server performance thresholds
- D. A server baseline
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A server baseline is a set of metrics that represents the normal performance and behavior of a server under a specific workload and configuration. A server baseline can help answer the server performance question by comparing the current performance with the previous performance before the upgrade. This can help identify any changes or issues that may have affected the server performance. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.2)
NEW QUESTION # 185
A systems administrator deployed a new web proxy server onto the network. The proxy server has two interfaces: the first is connected to an internal corporate firewall, and the second is connected to an internet-facing firewall. Many users at the company are reporting they are unable to access the Internet since the new proxy was introduced. Analyze the network diagram and the proxy server's host routing table to resolve the Internet connectivity issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Perform the following steps:
1. Click on the proxy server to display its routing table.
2. Modify the appropriate route entries to resolve the Internet connectivity issue.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Table Description automatically generated
Table Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 186
Which of the following licensing concepts is based on the number of logical processors a server has?
- A. Per server
- B. Per instance
- C. Per core
- D. Per socket
Answer: C
Explanation:
Per core licensing is based on the number of logical processors a server has. A logical processor is either a physical core or a virtual core created by hyperthreading. Per core licensing requires purchasing a license for each logical processor on the server. Verified References: [Per core licensing], [Logical processor]
NEW QUESTION # 187
A technician is sizing a new server and, for service reasons, needs as many hot-swappable components as possible. Which of the following server components can most commonly be replaced without downtime? (Select three).
- A. Fans
- B. BIOS
- C. CMOSIC
- D. Processor
- E. Memory
- F. Motherboard
- G. Drives
- H. Power supplies
Answer: A,G,H
Explanation:
Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.
NEW QUESTION # 188
A server administrator is using remote access to update a server. The administrator notices numerous error messages when using YUM to update the applications on a server. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?
- A. YUM dependencies
- B. Network connectivity on the server
- C. Disk space in the /var directory
- D. LVM status on the server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The administrator should check disk space in the /var directory first when using YUM to update applications on a server. YUM stands for Yellowdog Updater Modified, which is a software package manager for Linux systems that use RPM (Red Hat Package Manager) packages. YUM downloads and installs packages from online repositories and resolves dependencies automatically. YUM stores its cache files in the /var/cache/yum directory by default. These cache files include metadata and package data for each repository that YUM uses.
If there is not enough disk space in the /var directory, YUM may fail to update applications and generate error messages.
NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following attacks is the most difficult to mitigate with technology?
- A. Phishing
- B. Backdoor
- C. SQL injection
- D. Ransomware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Phishing is a type of attack that is the most difficult to mitigate with technology. Phishing is a technique of deceiving users into revealing their personal or confidential information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank accounts, by sending them fraudulent emails or messages that appear to be from legitimate sources. Phishing relies on human factors, such as curiosity, greed, or fear, to trick users into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials on fake websites. Technology solutions, such as antivirus software, firewalls, or spam filters, can help detect and block some phishing attempts, but they cannot prevent users from falling victim to social engineering tactics. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.3: Given a scenario, explain methods and techniques to secure data.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of the following open ports should be closed to secure the server properly? (Choose two.)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
Explanation
The administrator should close ports 21 and 23 to secure the server properly. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is an unsecure protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network connection. FTP does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an unsecure protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI. Telnet does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers.
NEW QUESTION # 191
Users report that the FinanceApp software is not running, and they need immediate access. Issues with the FinanceApp software occur every week after the IT team completes server system updates. The users, however, do not want to contact the help desk every time the issue occurs. The users also report the new MarketApp software is not usable when it crashes, which can cause significant downtime. The technician who restarted the MarketApp software noticed it is running under a test account, which is a likely cause of the crashes.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Services menu provided, modify the appropriate application services to remedy the stated issues.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution in explanation.
Explanation
FinanceApp software is running as a service named "FinanceApp Service". The service description says
"Provides financial data and calculations for the FinanceApp software". The service status is "Stopped", which means that the service is not running and the software is not functional. The service startup type is "Manual", which means that the service needs to be started manually by the user or the administrator. The service log on as is "Local System", which means that the service runs under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer.
To fix the issue with the FinanceApp software, you need to do two things:
First, you need to start the service, so that the software can run. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Start" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Start" button on the toolbar. You should see a message saying that the service has started successfully.
Second, you need to change the service startup type, so that the service can start automatically every time the server boots up. This way, you don't have to contact the help desk every time the issue occurs.
To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Properties" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Properties" button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options. On the "General" tab, under "Startup type", you can select
"Automatic" from the drop-down list. Then, click on "OK" to save your changes.
By doing these two steps, you should be able to use the FinanceApp software without any problems.
The MarketApp software is running as a service named "MarketApp Service". The service description says
"Provides market data and analysis for the MarketApp software". The service status is "Running", which means that the service is running and the software is functional. However, as you reported, the software may crash sometimes, which can cause significant downtime. The service startup type is "Automatic", which means that the service starts automatically every time the server boots up. The service log on as is
"TestAccount", which is a test account that was probably used for development or testing purposes.
To fix the issue with the MarketApp software, you need to do one thing:
You need to change the service log on as, so that the service runs under a proper account that has sufficient permissions and security settings for production use. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Properties" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Properties" button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options.
On the "Log On" tab, under "Log on as", you can select either "Local System account" or "This account". If you choose "Local System account", then the service will run under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer. If you choose "This account", then you will need to enter a valid username and password for an account that has appropriate permissions and security settings for running the service. You may need to consult with your IT team or your software vendor to determine which option is best for your situation. Then, click on "OK" to save your changes.
NEW QUESTION # 192
A hardware technician is installing 19 1U servers in a 42 the following unit sizes should be allocated per server?
- A. 3U
- B. 2U
- C. 4U
- D. 1U
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
1U stands for one unit and it is a standard unit of measurement for rack-mounted servers. It is equal to 1.75 inches (4.45 cm) in height. A 42U rack can accommodate 42 1U servers or a combination of servers with different unit sizes. Therefore, the unit size per server should be 1U if there are 19 1U servers in a 42U rack.References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 1.2)
NEW QUESTION # 193
A company created a new DR plan. The management team would like to begin performing a review of this plan without endangering company data and with a minimal time commitment. Which of the following testing methods would best allow for this type of review?
- A. Simulated
- B. Live
- C. Non-production
- D. Tabletop
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tabletop testing is a method of reviewing a DR plan without endangering company data and with a minimal time commitment. Tabletop testing involves a simulated scenario where the participants discuss their roles and responsibilities, identify potential issues, and evaluate the effectiveness of the plan. Simulated, live, and non-production testing are methods that involve more time and resources, and may pose some risks to company data. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Disaster Recovery, Objective 6.3: Compare and contrast various backup techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 194
A server administrator is trying to determine the cause of a slowdown on a database server. Upon investigation, the administrator determines the issue is in the storage subsystem. Which of the following will most likely resolve this issue?
- A. Implementing deduplication on the storage
- B. Extending capacity by installing a 4TB SATA disk
- C. Increasing IOPS by implementing flash storage
- D. Reformatting the disk as FAT32
Answer: C
Explanation:
Increasing IOPS (input/output operations per second) by implementing flash storage is the most likely solution to resolve a slowdown issue in the storage subsystem of a database server. Flash storage uses solid-state drives (SSDs) that have faster read/write speeds and lower latency than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs). This can improve the performance of database queries and transactions. Implementing deduplication, extending capacity, or reformatting the disk as FAT32 are not likely to resolve the issue, as they do not affect the IOPS of the storage subsystem. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.5: Summarize hardware and features of various storage technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 195
An administrator is configuring a new server for use as a database server. It will have two mirrored drives to hold the operating system, and there will be three drive bays remaining for storage Which of the following RAID levels will yield the BEST combination of available space and redundancy?
- A. RAID 1
- B. RAID 10
- C. RAID
- D. RAIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
RAID 10 is the RAID level that will yield the best combination of available space and redundancy when configuring a new server for use as a database server with two mirrored drives for the operating system and three drive bays remaining for storage. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 10 provides high performance, fault tolerance, and fast recovery, but it reduces storage capacity by half. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that splits data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. It improves performance but offers no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 1 is a RAID configuration that duplicates data across two or more drives. It provides fault tolerance and improves read performance, but reduces storage capacity by half. If one drive fails in RAID 1, the other drive can continue to operate without data loss or system downtime. RAID 5 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance and improves performance, but reduces storage capacity by one drive's worth of space. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two or more. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/199068/how-to-upgrade-your-existing-hard-drive-in-under-an-hour/
https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/
NEW QUESTION # 196
An administrator is configuring the storage for a new database server, which will host databases that are mainly used for archival lookups. Which of the following storage types will yield the fastest database read performance?
- A. 10K rpm SATA
- B. 15K rpm SCSI
- C. NAS
- D. SSD
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The storage type that will yield the fastest database read performance is SSD. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory to store data. SSDs have no moving parts and can access data faster than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning platters and magnetic heads. SSDs are especially suitable for databases that are mainly used for archival lookups, as they can provide faster response times and lower latency for read operations.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.2, Objective 1.2
NEW QUESTION # 197
A server administrator mounted a new hard disk on a Linux system with a mount point of /newdisk. It was later determined that users were unable to create directories or files on the new mount point. Which of the following commands would successfully mount the drive with the required parameters?
- A. net use /newdisk
- B. mount -a
- C. mount -o remount, rw /newdisk
- D. echo /newdisk >> /etc/fstab
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should use the command mount -o remount,rw /newdisk to successfully mount the drive with the required parameters. The mount command is used to mount file systems on Linux systems. The -o option specifies options for mounting file systems. The remount option re-mounts an already mounted file system with different options. The rw option mounts a file system with read-write permissions. In this case,
/newdisk is a mount point for a new hard disk that was mounted with read-only permissions by default. To allow users to create directories or files on /newdisk, the administrator needs to re-mount /
NEW QUESTION # 198
Users at a company work with highly sensitive dat
a. The security department implemented an administrative and technical control to enforce least-privilege access assigned to files. However, the security department has discovered unauthorized data exfiltration. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect the data from leaking?
- A. Utilize privacy screens.
- B. Install a DLP solution.
- C. Enforce the lock-screen feature.
- D. Implement disk quotas.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Components of a Data Loss Solution
NEW QUESTION # 199
An administrator is installing a new file server that has four drive bays available. Which of the following RAID types would provide the MOST storage as well as disk redundancy?
- A. RAID 10
- B. RAID 1
- C. RAID 5
- D. RAIDO
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
RAID 5 is a RAID level that provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. RAID 5 provides the most storage as well as disk redundancy out of the four RAID levels given, since it only uses one disk for parity and the rest for data. For example, if four 200GB drives are used in a RAID 5 array, the total storage capacity would be 600GB (200GB x 3), while in RAID 0 it would be 800GB (200GB x 4), in RAID 1 it would be 200GB (200GB x 1), and in RAID 10 it would be 400GB (200GB x 2).
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which of the following are measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs? (Select TWO).
- A. Identify the exploited vulnerability.
- B. Disclose the incident.
- C. Run an antivirus scan.
- D. Restore the data from backup.
- E. Disable unnecessary ports.
- F. Move the data to a different location.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
These are two measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs. A data breach is an unauthorized or illegal access to confidential or sensitive data by an internal or external actor. A data breach can result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, and regulatory penalties for the affected organization.
Disclosing the incident is a measure that involves informing the relevant stakeholders, such as customers, employees, partners, regulators, and law enforcement, about the nature, scope, and impact of the data breach.
Disclosing the incident can help to mitigate the negative consequences of the data breach, comply with legal obligations, and restore trust and confidence. Identifying the exploited vulnerability is a measure that involves investigating and analyzing the root cause and source of the data breach. Identifying the exploited vulnerability can help to prevent further data loss, remediate the security gaps, and improve the security posture of the organization. Restoring the data from backup is a measure that involves recovering the lost or corrupted data from a secondary storage device or location. However, this does not address the underlying issue of how the data breach occurred or prevent future breaches. Disabling unnecessary ports is a measure that involves closing or blocking network communication endpoints that are not required for legitimate purposes. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited.
Running an antivirus scan is a measure that involves detecting and removing malicious software from a system or network. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited.
Moving the data to a different location is a measure that involves transferring the data to another storage device or location that may be more secure or less accessible. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/
https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the-difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individua
NEW QUESTION # 201
A systems administrator recently installed a new virtual server. After completing the installation, the administrator was only able to reach a few of the servers on the network. While testing, the administrator discovered only servers that had similar IP addresses were reachable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- A. The subnet mask is incorrect.
- B. There is an improper DNS configuration.
- C. The jumbo frames are not enabled.
- D. There is an IP address conflict.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 202
Which of the following script types uses commands That start with sec-?
- A. JavaScript
- B. PowerShell
- C. Bash
- D. Batch
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that uses commands that start with sec- to perform security-related tasks. For example, sec-edit is a command that edits security policies, sec-logon is a command that manages logon sessions, and sec-policy is a command that applies security templates. Verified References: [PowerShell security commands], [Security policy]
NEW QUESTION # 203
An administrator is installing a new file server that has four drive bays available. Which of the following RAID types would provide the MOST storage as well as disk redundancy?
- A. RAID 10
- B. RAID 1
- C. RAID 5
- D. RAIDO
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 5 is a RAID level that provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. RAID 5 provides the most storage as well as disk redundancy out of the four RAID levels given, since it only uses one disk for parity and the rest for data. For example, if four 200GB drives are used in a RAID 5 array, the total storage capacity would be 600GB (200GB x 3), while in RAID 0 it would be 800GB (200GB x 4), in RAID 1 it would be 200GB (200GB x 1), and in RAID 10 it would be 400GB (200GB x 2). Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of Pll?
- A. IPS
- B. DLP
- C. SIEM
- D. HIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.2)
NEW QUESTION # 205
An administrator is installing a new server and OS. After installing the OS, the administrator logs in and wants to quickly check the network configuration. Which of the following is the best command to use to accomplish this task?
- A. tracert
- B. ipconfig
- C. telnet
- D. ping
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 206
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